According to Bernstein, the Mean Annual Stock Return over the period 1802 to 1997 (that's 196 years) is 8.4% and, over this same period, the Root Mean Square (RMS) deviation of Annual Returns (that's the Standard Deviation) from this Mean is 17.5%.

He concludes that, over 10-year periods, the RMS deviation of Annual Returns from this 8.4% Mean is 17.5%/SQRT(10) = 5.54%.

Over 196 years, the RMS deviation from the 8.4% Mean is 17.5%.
Over 10 years, the RMS deviation from the 8.4% Mean is 5.54%.
Does this seem curious?
Is this SQUARE-ROOT-of-TIME ritual valid?
The statement: "...the probability of a return worse than two standard deviations (2SD) below the mean is 2.3%" assumes a Normal distribution of Annual Returns: NORMDIST(-2,0,1,TRUE) = 0.023 or 2.3%
Is that valid?

Hi Bill:

As always, I've enjoyed reading your
http://www.efficientfrontier.com/ef/402/siegel.htm

However, (as always!) I'm a bit confused and hope you can clear things up.

If I understand correctly: the Mean Annual Stock Return over the period 1802 to 1997 (196 years) is 8.4% and, over this same period, the Root Mean Square (RMS) deviation of Annual Returns (the SD) from this 8.4% Mean is 17.5%.

However, you conclude that, over "10-year" periods, the RMS deviation of Annual Returns from this 8.4% Mean is
17.5%/SQRT(10) = 5.54% (statistically speaking).
Over 196 years, the RMS deviation from the 8.4% Mean is 17.5% (from historical data).
Over 10 years, the RMS deviation from the 8.4% Mean is 5.54% (from random walk arguments).
Is that what you are saying?

Many thanks for any clarification you can give.
Peter Ponzo